Filosofía, pregunta formulada por chepinsalchicha, hace 5 meses

1
“If you find a way to provide those who are to command a better life than that of the ruler, it is possible that you will have a well-governed city, because this will be the only one in which the truly rich rule, who are not rich in gold. But in what it is necessary to possess in abundance to be happy: a good and judicious life.
But where beggars and hungry for personal goods are those who go to politics believing that it is from there that wealth must be obtained, that will not happen there. Because when the command becomes the object of struggles, that same domestic and internal war loses both them and the rest of the city. "
Plato, The Republic, VII 521a

2
Origin of the State and Society
“Every state is evidently an association, and every association is formed only in view of some good, since men, whatever they are, never do anything except in view of what appears to them to be good. It is clear therefore that all associations tend towards a good of a certain kind, and that the most important of all goods must be the object of the most important of associations, the one that encloses all the others and which is called precisely state and political association ”.
Aristotle, Politics, Ch. 1

• Which of the two definitions is more related to economics? Why?

Respuestas a la pregunta

Contestado por lordandre
0

Respuesta:

The second definition is the more related to economics because is an idea similar to what Adam Smith said in his book The Wealth of Nations, where he unveiled the metaphor of the invisible hand.

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